QC
Supreme Mariner
- Joined
- Mar 22, 2005
- Messages
- 22,783
Before I ask my question . . . please do not turn this into a political issue. I have a legitimate (maybe stupid) question and I want to discuss this from a marketing/what if/what's possible type perspective. I do not care if you like/hate the bailout or like/hate banks or like/hate stupid people!!!!!! Thank you 
OK, so let's assume a couple of things:
1) The US Government effectively buys some shaky home loans from lenders that are on a somewhat shaky footing. $700B or $700 it doesn't matter
2) They pay 50% of those loan "values" or balance for those loans, AKA "50 cents on the dollar". Yes I know it is maybe 60 cents, but that doesn't matter for this question and 50 cents makes the math easier.
3) That the US backing or US holding of these loans would still mean that someone is responsible to pay them back.
OK, so with those assumptions in mind, here is the scenario for my question.
Let's say that Joe Blow Borrower has a $100K balance on a home mortgage. And let's say his home is worth $75K. And let's assume that the $100K mortgage payments are breaking his budget. Joe is otherwise a good guy, but he is in over his head. He is underwater and he simply cannot make the payment. He is considering bankruptcy, but he hates that idea, but it is probably best for his family etc. However, he could afford a 30 year amortized payment on a $50K loan.
So why couldn't the US Government "buy" that loan for $50K (50 cents on the $100K dollar). And then somebody calls up Joe and says, "listen dude, Uncle Sam loves you. We want to help, and we want to make sure that our good taxpayers get their money back at the same time. So we want to offer you a new loan at $50K, your payment will be X. Can you swing that?" And in this example Ole Joe says, "heck yeah!! Hallelujah!! I am whole again, and my family will be able to keep our home and how the heck did this miracle happen, and thank you, thank you, thank you."
And in fact the US taxpayer IS whole, and Joe is happy, and the company who got 50 cents on the dollar did get hurt and then the US "sells" that loan back to a stronger lender but still backs it . . .
I would think a lending institution would gladly loan him $50K if the US Government would "guarantee" that Joe will pay it back. Who is the loser here? What am I missing?
OK, so let's assume a couple of things:
1) The US Government effectively buys some shaky home loans from lenders that are on a somewhat shaky footing. $700B or $700 it doesn't matter
2) They pay 50% of those loan "values" or balance for those loans, AKA "50 cents on the dollar". Yes I know it is maybe 60 cents, but that doesn't matter for this question and 50 cents makes the math easier.
3) That the US backing or US holding of these loans would still mean that someone is responsible to pay them back.
OK, so with those assumptions in mind, here is the scenario for my question.
Let's say that Joe Blow Borrower has a $100K balance on a home mortgage. And let's say his home is worth $75K. And let's assume that the $100K mortgage payments are breaking his budget. Joe is otherwise a good guy, but he is in over his head. He is underwater and he simply cannot make the payment. He is considering bankruptcy, but he hates that idea, but it is probably best for his family etc. However, he could afford a 30 year amortized payment on a $50K loan.
So why couldn't the US Government "buy" that loan for $50K (50 cents on the $100K dollar). And then somebody calls up Joe and says, "listen dude, Uncle Sam loves you. We want to help, and we want to make sure that our good taxpayers get their money back at the same time. So we want to offer you a new loan at $50K, your payment will be X. Can you swing that?" And in this example Ole Joe says, "heck yeah!! Hallelujah!! I am whole again, and my family will be able to keep our home and how the heck did this miracle happen, and thank you, thank you, thank you."
And in fact the US taxpayer IS whole, and Joe is happy, and the company who got 50 cents on the dollar did get hurt and then the US "sells" that loan back to a stronger lender but still backs it . . .
I would think a lending institution would gladly loan him $50K if the US Government would "guarantee" that Joe will pay it back. Who is the loser here? What am I missing?